Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 08:05
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What kind of book did you write after turning 55?
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Which city should one visit between Nice and Cannes? Why?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.